Graham
I regret I am not a student of Greek, however the good news which is being spread relates to a belief and a belief, by definition, allows no dissent: either one believes or does not.
I do not "try" to do anything in relation to Ms Ladele: I merely reflect on what she has done to herself. Nor is your assumption that my misspelling of her name was either intentional or in any way derogatory correct, indeed perhaps I should feel offended that you make that judgement of me?
But then I'm not that petty; (and for information: My surname gets misspelled or misinterpreted all the time; so far I've not noticed it cause me any injury).
Heterosexuality or homosexuality is a matter of genetics: If a God (in whatever meaning one choses to ascribe to that word) created the individual as part of their great plan then they placed in them, through their genes, the desire to create the association being formalised. "Free will", is no more "free" of our genes than it is of our up-bringing. Both "nature" and "nurture" being of significance, but the latter able only to operate within the boundaries of the former, and indeed arguably further dependent on the "nature" of those doing the "nurturing".
I suspect (forgive me if I am wrong) that your illustration of criminality as a parallel to homosexuality make you of the belief that this "behaviour" can be "changed", however your example holds within it the seeds of its own downfall: All children indeed push the limits of behaviour (it's called "learning") and if certain traits of this process (what any given society deems to be "misconduct") are not controlled or diverted then an anti-social individual will indeed result: Thus "nurture" is vital in the process. Unfortunately some children are also born who are genetically anti-social, growing to become psychopathic or sociopathic whatever parental or educational input is applied.
In both parallels, the genetic framework within which "nurture" can operate is set. "Curing" homosexuality is as much a myth as is "curing" psychopathy. The latter can be controlled (by drug therapy etc) and the former has historically been controlled by fear of ostracism or, more frequently, death! But being forced to suppress one's nature is not changing it; merely hiding it. Is this what a benevolent and loving God would expect from a being he had created to be the way they are? And even if one accepts this injustice, who are we to act on that cruel decision? Would you feel empowered to punish a neighbour's child because you had heard their Father say they were naughty for having blond hair instead of brown? Indeed would you feel it fair for him to punish them himself?
You suggest my argument is not "helpful". By this do you mean that I do not agree with the view that anyone can set aside their society's laws because they conflict with their beliefs? Oh, would that I did! Next time I wished to drive at 60 in a 30 zone I could then argue that my belief that it was safe to do so over-rode my local authority's decision (based on mere facts like accident statistics) that it was not. Oh, joy!
No. Graham: The fact is that Ms Ladele's employment is a legal contract in which the employer is bound to offer work and the employee agrees to do it. She has refused; that's breach of contract. The issue of motivation is something else entirely.
You again do me scant courtesy by suggesting that I disregard Ms Ladele's motives: I do not. I have certainly said they are not relevant to the purely legal issue of whether she breached her contract or not, but that is not to disregard them. Again you confuse the issues of action with intent. Martin Luther or Ms Ladele; the intent of both parties was no doubt pure, but that does not make the actions they took to further those intentions any more acceptable in the context of the applicable law. Any respect I may have for the stance taken (by either) does not so blind me as to suggest that they were right in the legal context of the place and time; indeed in the case of Luther it is the very fact that, in that context, he knew he was standing for a moral principle against the religious laws of the time which made his action significant. Morally right can still be legally wrong: Is that a surprise?
...And whose morality is right? By which interpretation: Hebrew? Latin? Greek? Aramaic? Islamic? Jewish; Shinto......?
Law is not created in a vacuum: It is the agreement of a form of conduct, or a restraint on forms of conduct, which the society of that place and time have by consensus determined should apply. It is neither "right" or "wrong" in any absolute terms; indeed if you glance at the statute books for even the last century alone you will find hundreds of laws that seemed "right" to our society in 1910 but which appal us now.
Ms Ladele made her choice: she must live with it. I do not judge whether that choice was morally right or wrong, (indeed I don't believe I've commented on the morality or otherwise of same-sex partnerships) but what I stand by completely is my opinion that, in our society's laws, of our time, the decision by Islington Council was right and the arguments presented that an individual's choices whatever their motive should not over-rule the structures that we live by are sound.
We do, however, have an option: If so many people think she's right, then lobby to have the law changed. Simple. Your example Luther did it in far more dangerous and less democratic times.
I'm not sure of the meaning of your comments regarding "knowledge...independant of sense-experience". Is this your means of referring to genetics? Is belief so "un absolute" that it must fail to recognise realities that are demonstrated before its eyes? ...And again; you're wrong: I'm not trying to asset the "superiority" of any philosophy over any other: If I was expressing any view outside the ones relevant to the case in question it was that I chose to live my life within the experience of the senses I have, given to me by God, or evolution, or Harry Potter's magic for all it matters! Those senses have, throughout my life, fed me information none of which suggests to me that there is any "being", either benevolent or malevolent, who has expressed any set of "laws" which give me the right to judge my fellow man by anything but their interrelationships with me and my society. In short: by their respect for me as an individual and our society (however you wish to define that; locally, nationally or globally).
Is my viewpoint irrefutable?
Personally, I'm not arrogant enough to ever say that I'm omnipotent, so how could I possibly say I'm infallible and my viewpoint cannot be challenged? Only Gods can do that.
I have given you the courtesy of an answer, but since I am sure that readers must be tired of hearing my views; that is my last word.